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Understanding functional and technical aspects of Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Securing the Cloud
The following will be discussed in CISCO 350-701 exam dumps:
- Security assessment in the cloud
- Compare the customer vs. provider security responsibility for the different cloud service models
- Describe the concept of DevSecOps (CI/CD pipeline, container orchestration, and security
- Cloud-delivered security solutions such as firewall, management, proxy, security intelligence, and CASB
- Cloud service models: SaaS, PaaS, IaaS (NIST 800-145)
- Describe application and workload security concepts
- Public, private, hybrid, and community clouds
- Configure cloud logging and monitoring methodologies
- Implement application and data security in cloud environments
- Identify security solutions for cloud environments
NEW QUESTION 336
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command was used to display this output?
- A. show dot1x all summary
- B. show dot1x all
- C. show dot1x interface gi1/0/12
- D. show dot1x
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 337
A switch with Dynamic ARP inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trusted interface. How does the switch behave in this situation?
- A. It forwards the packet after validation by using the MAC Binding Table.
- B. It drops the packet after validation by using the IP & MAC Binding Table.
- C. It forwards the packet without validation.
- D. It drops the packet Without validation.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 338
What is a functional difference between Cisco AMP for Endpoints and Cisco Umbrella Roaming Client?
- A. The Umbrella Roaming client stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and AMP for Endpoints tracks only URL-based threats.
- B. The Umbrella Roaming Client authenticates users and provides segmentation, and AMP for Endpoints allows only for VPN connectivity
- C. AMP for Endpoints authenticates users and provides segmentation, and the Umbrella Roaming Client allows only for VPN connectivity.
- D. AMP for Endpoints stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and the Umbrella Roaming Client tracks only URL-based threats.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 339
Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?
- A. AES-256
- B. SHA-96
- C. AES-GCM
- D. SHA-384
Answer: C
Explanation:
The data plane of any network is responsible for handling data packets that are transported across the network.
(The data plane is also sometimes called the forwarding plane.)
Maybe this Qwants to ask about the encryption and authentication in the data plane of a SD-WAN network (but SD-WAN is not a topic of the SCOR 350-701 exam?).
In the Cisco SD-WAN network for unicast traffic, data plane encryption is done by AES-256-GCM, a symmetrickey algorithm that uses the same key to encrypt outgoing packets and to decrypt incoming packets. Each router periodically generates an AES key for its data path (specifically, one key per TLOC) and transmits this key to the vSmart controller in OMP route packets, which are similar to IP route updates.
The data plane of any network is responsible for handling data packets that are transported across the network.
(The data plane is also sometimes called the forwarding plane.)
Maybe this Qwants to ask about the encryption and authentication in the data plane of a SD-WAN network (but SD-WAN is not a topic of the SCOR 350-701 exam?).
In the Cisco SD-WAN network for unicast traffic, data plane encryption is done by AES-256-GCM, a symmetrickey algorithm that uses the same key to encrypt outgoing packets and to decrypt incoming packets. Each router periodically generates an AES key for its data path (specifically, one key per TLOC) and transmits this key to the vSmart controller in OMP route packets, which are similar to IP route updates.
Reference:
The data plane of any network is responsible for handling data packets that are transported across the network.
(The data plane is also sometimes called the forwarding plane.)
Maybe this Qwants to ask about the encryption and authentication in the data plane of a SD-WAN network (but SD-WAN is not a topic of the SCOR 350-701 exam?).
In the Cisco SD-WAN network for unicast traffic, data plane encryption is done by AES-256-GCM, a symmetrickey algorithm that uses the same key to encrypt outgoing packets and to decrypt incoming packets. Each router periodically generates an AES key for its data path (specifically, one key per TLOC) and transmits this key to the vSmart controller in OMP route packets, which are similar to IP route updates.
NEW QUESTION 340
Using Cisco Firepower's Security Intelligence policies, upon which two criteria is Firepower block based?
(Choose two)
- A. MAC addresses
- B. IP addresses
- C. port numbers
- D. URLs
- E. protocol IDs
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Security Intelligence Sources
...
Custom Block lists or feeds (or objects or groups)
Block specific IP addresses, URLs, or domain names using a manually-created list or feed (for IP addresses, you can also use network objects or groups.) For example, if you become aware of malicious sites or addresses that are not yet blocked by a feed, add these sites to a custom Security Intelligence list and add this custom list to the Block list in the Security Intelligence tab of your access control policy.
NEW QUESTION 341
What is a commonality between DMVPN and FlexVPN technologies?
- A. FlexVPN and DMVPN use IS-IS routing protocol to communicate with spokes
- B. FlexVPN and DMVPN use the new key management protocol
- C. IOS routers run the same NHRP code for DMVPN and FlexVPN
- D. FlexVPN and DMVPN use the same hashing algorithms
Answer: C
Explanation:
In its essence, FlexVPN is the same as DMVPN. Connections between devices are still point-to-point GRE tunnels, spoke-to-spoke connectivity is still achieved with NHRP redirect message, IOS routers even run the same NHRP code for both DMVPN and FlexVPN, which also means that both are Cisco's proprietary technologies.
In its essence, FlexVPN is the same as DMVPN. Connections between devices are still point-to-point GRE tunnels, spoke-to-spoke connectivity is still achieved with NHRP redirect message, IOS routers even run the same NHRP code for both DMVPN and FlexVPN, which also means that both are Cisco's proprietary technologies.
Reference:
In its essence, FlexVPN is the same as DMVPN. Connections between devices are still point-to-point GRE tunnels, spoke-to-spoke connectivity is still achieved with NHRP redirect message, IOS routers even run the same NHRP code for both DMVPN and FlexVPN, which also means that both are Cisco's proprietary technologies.
NEW QUESTION 342
What are two DDoS attack categories? (Choose two)
- A. sequential
- B. volume-based
- C. protocol
- D. screen-based
- E. database
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
There are three basic categories of attack: + volume-based attacks, which use high traffic to inundate the network bandwidth + protocol attacks, which focus on exploiting server resources + application attacks, which focus on web applications and are considered the most sophisticated and serious type of attacks Reference: https://www.esecurityplanet.com/networks/types-of-ddos-attacks/
+ volume-based attacks, which use high traffic to inundate the network bandwidth
+ protocol attacks, which focus on exploiting server resources
There are three basic categories of attack: + volume-based attacks, which use high traffic to inundate the network bandwidth + protocol attacks, which focus on exploiting server resources + application attacks, which focus on web applications and are considered the most sophisticated and serious type of attacks Reference: https://www.esecurityplanet.com/networks/types-of-ddos-attacks/
NEW QUESTION 343
What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two)
- A. snort
- B. URL categorization
- C. command and control communication
- D. data exfiltration
- E. intelligent proxy
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Cisco Cognitive Threat Analytics helps you quickly detect and respond to sophisticated, clandestine attacks that are already under way or are attempting to establish a presence within your environment. The solution automatically identifies and investigates suspicious or malicious web-based traffic. It identifies both potential and confirmed threats, allowing you to quickly remediate the infection and reduce the scope and damage of an attack, whether it's a known threat campaign that has spread across multiple organizations or a unique threat you've never seen before.
Detection and analytics features provided in Cognitive Threat Analytics are shown below:
+ Data exfiltration: Cognitive Threat Analytics uses statistical modeling of an organization's network to identify anomalous web traffic and pinpoint the exfiltration of sensitive data. It recognizes data exfiltration even in HTTPS-encoded traffic, without any need for you to decrypt transferred content
+ Command-and-control (C2) communication: Cognitive Threat Analytics combines a wide range of data, ranging from statistics collected on an Internet-wide level to host-specific local anomaly scores. Combining these indicators inside the statistical detection algorithms allows us to distinguish C2 communication from benign traffic and from other malicious activities. Cognitive Threat Analytics recognizes C2 even in HTTPSencoded or anonymous traffic, including Tor, without any need to decrypt transferred content, detecting a broad range of threats
...
NEW QUESTION 344
Which exfiltration method does an attacker use to hide and encode data inside DNS requests and queries?
- A. DNSCrypt
- B. DNS tunneling
- C. DNSSEC
- D. DNS security
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 345
What is a benefit of using GET VPN over FlexVPN within a VPN deployment?
- A. GET VPN interoperates with non-Cisco devices
- B. GET VPN supports Remote Access VPNs
- C. GET VPN uses multiple security associations for connections
- D. GET VPN natively supports MPLS and private IP networks
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 346
Which factor must be considered when choosing the on-premise solution over the cloud-based one?
- A. With a cloud-based solution, the provider is responsible for the installation, but the customer is responsible for the maintenance of the product.
- B. With an on-premise solution, the customer is responsible for the installation and maintenance of the product, whereas with a cloud-based solution, the provider is responsible for it.
- C. With an on-premise solution, the provider is responsible for the installation, but the customer is responsible for the maintenance of the product.
- D. With an on-premise solution, the provider is responsible for the installation and maintenance of the product, whereas with a cloud-based solution, the customer is responsible for it
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 347
Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?
- A. cross-site scripting
- B. buffer overflow
- C. DDoS
- D. water holing
Answer: B
Explanation:
A buffer overflow (or buffer overrun) occurs when the volume of data exceeds the storage capacity of the memory buffer. As a result, the program attempting to write the data to the buffer overwrites adjacent memory locations.
Buffer overflow is a vulnerability in low level codes of C and C++. An attacker can cause the program to crash, make data corrupt, steal some private information or run his/her own code. It basically means to access any buffer outside of it's alloted memory space. This happens quite frequently in the case of arrays.
NEW QUESTION 348
An administrator is establishing a new site-to-site VPN connection on a Cisco IOS router. The organization needs to ensure that the ISAKMP key on the hub is used only for terminating traffic from the IP address of
172.19.20.24. Which command on the hub will allow the administrator to accomplish this?
- A. crypto ca identity 172.19.20.24
- B. crypto enrollment peer address 172.19.20.24
- C. crypto isakmp key Cisco0123456789 172.19.20.24
- D. crypto isakmp identity address 172.19.20.24
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation The command "crypto isakmp identity address 172.19.20.24" is not valid. We can only use "crypto isakmp identity {address | hostname}. The following example uses preshared keys at two peers and sets both their ISAKMP identities to the IP address. At the local peer (at 10.0.0.1) the ISAKMP identity is set and the preshared key is specified: crypto isakmp identity address crypto isakmp key sharedkeystring address 192.168.1.33 At the remote peer (at 192.168.1.33) the ISAKMP identity is set and the same preshared key is specified: crypto isakmp identity address crypto isakmp key sharedkeystring address 10.0.0.1 Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/security/a1/sec-a1-cr-book/sec-crc4.html#wp3880782430 The command "crypto enrollment peer address" is not valid either. The command "crypto ca identity ..." is only used to declare a trusted CA for the router and puts you in the caidentity configuration mode. Also it should be followed by a name, not an IP address. For example: "crypto ca identity CA-Server" -> Answer A is not correct. Only answer B is the best choice left.
The command "crypto isakmp identity address 172.19.20.24" is not valid. We can only use "crypto isakmp identity {address | hostname}. The following example uses preshared keys at two peers and sets both their ISAKMP identities to the IP address.
At the local peer (at 10.0.0.1) the ISAKMP identity is set and the preshared key is specified:
crypto isakmp identity address
crypto isakmp key sharedkeystring address 192.168.1.33
At the remote peer (at 192.168.1.33) the ISAKMP identity is set and the same preshared key is specified:
crypto isakmp identity address
crypto isakmp key sharedkeystring address 10.0.0.1
Reference:
The command "crypto enrollment peer address" is not valid either.
The command "crypto ca identity ..." is only used to declare a trusted CA for the router and puts you in the caidentity configuration mode. Also it should be followed by a name, not an IP address. For example: "crypto ca identity CA-Server" -> Answer A is not correct.
Explanation The command "crypto isakmp identity address 172.19.20.24" is not valid. We can only use "crypto isakmp identity {address | hostname}. The following example uses preshared keys at two peers and sets both their ISAKMP identities to the IP address. At the local peer (at 10.0.0.1) the ISAKMP identity is set and the preshared key is specified: crypto isakmp identity address crypto isakmp key sharedkeystring address 192.168.1.33 At the remote peer (at 192.168.1.33) the ISAKMP identity is set and the same preshared key is specified: crypto isakmp identity address crypto isakmp key sharedkeystring address 10.0.0.1 Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/security/a1/sec-a1-cr-book/sec-crc4.html#wp3880782430 The command "crypto enrollment peer address" is not valid either. The command "crypto ca identity ..." is only used to declare a trusted CA for the router and puts you in the caidentity configuration mode. Also it should be followed by a name, not an IP address. For example: "crypto ca identity CA-Server" -> Answer A is not correct. Only answer B is the best choice left.
NEW QUESTION 349
A network administrator is configuring a rule in an access control policy to block certain URLs and selects the
"Chat and Instant Messaging" category. Which reputation score should be selected to accomplish this goal?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa111/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_1/b_ESA_Adm
NEW QUESTION 350
Which DevSecOps implementation process gives a weekly or daily update instead of monthly or quarterly in the applications?
- A. Container
- B. Security
- C. CI/CD pipeline
- D. Orchestration
Answer: C
Explanation:
Unlike the traditional software life cycle, the CI/CD implementation process gives a weekly or daily update instead of monthly or quarterly. The fun part is customers won't even realize the update is in their applications, as they happen on the fly.
NEW QUESTION 351
What is a characteristic of Cisco ASA Netflow v9 Secure Event Logging?
- A. It tracks flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied events.
- B. Its events match all traffic classes in parallel.
- C. It tracks the flow continuously and provides updates every 10 seconds.
- D. It provides stateless IP flow tracking that exports all records of a specific flow.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ASA and ASASM implementations of NetFlow Secure Event Logging (NSEL) provide a stateful, IP flow tracking method that exports only those records that indicate significant events in a flow. The significant events that are tracked include flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied (excluding those flows that are denied by EtherType ACLs). Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/general/asa-general-cli/ monitor-nsel.html The significant events that are tracked include flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied (excluding those flows that are denied by EtherType ACLs).
The ASA and ASASM implementations of NetFlow Secure Event Logging (NSEL) provide a stateful, IP flow tracking method that exports only those records that indicate significant events in a flow. The significant events that are tracked include flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied (excluding those flows that are denied by EtherType ACLs). Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/general/asa-general-cli/ monitor-nsel.html
NEW QUESTION 352
What is provided by the Secure Hash Algorithm in a VPN?
- A. integrity
- B. encryption
- C. authentication
- D. key exchange
Answer: A
Explanation:
The HMAC-SHA-1-96 (also known as HMAC-SHA-1) encryption technique is used by IPSec to ensure that a message has not been altered. (-> Therefore answer "integrity" is the best choice). HMAC-SHA-1 uses the SHA-1 specified in FIPS-190-1, combined with HMAC (as per RFC 2104), and is described in RFC 2404.
The HMAC-SHA-1-96 (also known as HMAC-SHA-1) encryption technique is used by IPSec to ensure that a message has not been altered. (-> Therefore answer "integrity" is the best choice). HMAC-SHA-1 uses the SHA-1 specified in FIPS-190-1, combined with HMAC (as per RFC 2104), and is described in RFC 2404.
Reference:
The HMAC-SHA-1-96 (also known as HMAC-SHA-1) encryption technique is used by IPSec to ensure that a message has not been altered. (-> Therefore answer "integrity" is the best choice). HMAC-SHA-1 uses the SHA-1 specified in FIPS-190-1, combined with HMAC (as per RFC 2104), and is described in RFC 2404.
NEW QUESTION 353
What are two ways a network administrator transparently identifies users using Active Directory on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.) The eDirectory client must be installed on each client workstation.
- A. Deploy a separate Active Directory agent such as Cisco Context Directory Agent.
- B. Create NTLM or Kerberos authentication realm and enable transparent user identification
- C. Deploy a separate eDirectory server: the client IP address is recorded in this server
- D. Create an LDAP authentication realm and disable transparent user identification.
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION 354
A Cisco ESA administrator has been tasked with configuring the Cisco ESA to ensure there are no viruses before quarantined emails are delivered. In addition, delivery of mail from known bad mail servers must be prevented. Which two actions must be taken in order to meet these requirements? (Choose two)
- A. Configure a recipient access table
- B. Deploy the Cisco ESA in the DMZ
- C. Use outbreak filters from SenderBase
- D. Enable a message tracking service
- E. Scan quarantined emails using AntiVirus signatures
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
We should scan emails using AntiVirus signatures to make sure there are no viruses attached in emails.
Note: A virus signature is the fingerprint of a virus. It is a set of unique data, or bits of code, that allow it to be identified. Antivirus software uses a virus signature to find a virus in a computer file system, allowing to detect, quarantine, and remove the virus.
SenderBase is an email reputation service designed to help email administrators research senders, identify legitimate sources of email, and block spammers. When the Cisco ESA receives messages from known or highly reputable senders, it delivers them directly to the end user without any content scanning. However, when the Cisco ESA receives email messages from unknown or less reputable senders, it performs antispam and antivirus scanning.
We should scan emails using AntiVirus signatures to make sure there are no viruses attached in emails.
Note: A virus signature is the fingerprint of a virus. It is a set of unique data, or bits of code, that allow it to be identified. Antivirus software uses a virus signature to find a virus in a computer file system, allowing to detect, quarantine, and remove the virus.
SenderBase is an email reputation service designed to help email administrators research senders, identify legitimate sources of email, and block spammers. When the Cisco ESA receives messages from known or highly reputable senders, it delivers them directly to the end user without any content scanning. However, when the Cisco ESA receives email messages from unknown or less reputable senders, it performs antispam and antivirus scanning.
We should scan emails using AntiVirus signatures to make sure there are no viruses attached in emails.
Note: A virus signature is the fingerprint of a virus. It is a set of unique data, or bits of code, that allow it to be identified. Antivirus software uses a virus signature to find a virus in a computer file system, allowing to detect, quarantine, and remove the virus.
SenderBase is an email reputation service designed to help email administrators research senders, identify legitimate sources of email, and block spammers. When the Cisco ESA receives messages from known or highly reputable senders, it delivers them directly to the end user without any content scanning. However, when the Cisco ESA receives email messages from unknown or less reputable senders, it performs antispam and antivirus scanning.
Reference:
b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_0100100.html
-> Therefore Outbreak filters can be used to block emails from bad mail servers.
Web servers and email gateways are generally located in the DMZ so
Note: The recipient access table (RAT), not to be confused with remote-access Trojan (also RAT), is a Cisco ESA term that defines which recipients are accepted by a public listener.
b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_0100100.html
-> Therefore Outbreak filters can be used to block emails from bad mail servers.
Web servers and email gateways are generally located in the DMZ so
b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_0100100.html
-> Therefore Outbreak filters can be used to block emails from bad mail servers.
Web servers and email gateways are generally located in the DMZ so
Note: The recipient access table (RAT), not to be confused with remote-access Trojan (also RAT), is a Cisco ESA term that defines which recipients are accepted by a public listener.
NEW QUESTION 355
An engineer wants to generate NetFlow records on traffic traversing the Cisco ASA.
Which Cisco ASA command must be used?
- A. ip flow monitor input
- B. flow-export destination inside 1.1.1.1 2055
- C. flow exporter
- D. ip flow-export destination 1.1.1.1 2055
Answer: B
Explanation:
The syntax of this command is: flow-export destination interface-name ipv4-address | hostname udp-port This command is used on Cisco ASA to configure Network Secure Event Logging (NSEL) collector to which NetFlow packets are sent. The destination keyword indicates that a NSEL collector is being configured.
+ The interface-name argument is the name of the ASA and ASA Services Module interface through which the collector is reached.
+ The ipv4-address argument is the IP address of the machine running the collector application.
+ The hostname argument is the destination IP address or name of the collector.
+ The udp-port argument is the UDP port number to which NetFlow packets are sent.
You can configure a maximum of five collectors. After a collector is configured, template records are automatically sent to all configured NSEL collectors.
The syntax of this command is: flow-export destination interface-name ipv4-address | hostname udp-port This command is used on Cisco ASA to configure Network Secure Event Logging (NSEL) collector to which NetFlow packets are sent. The destination keyword indicates that a NSEL collector is being configured.
+ The interface-name argument is the name of the ASA and ASA Services Module interface through which the collector is reached.
+ The ipv4-address argument is the IP address of the machine running the collector application.
+ The hostname argument is the destination IP address or name of the collector.
+ The udp-port argument is the UDP port number to which NetFlow packets are sent.
You can configure a maximum of five collectors. After a collector is configured, template records are automatically sent to all configured NSEL collectors.
Reference:
monitor_nsel.html
The syntax of this command is: flow-export destination interface-name ipv4-address | hostname udp-port This command is used on Cisco ASA to configure Network Secure Event Logging (NSEL) collector to which NetFlow packets are sent. The destination keyword indicates that a NSEL collector is being configured.
+ The interface-name argument is the name of the ASA and ASA Services Module interface through which the collector is reached.
+ The ipv4-address argument is the IP address of the machine running the collector application.
+ The hostname argument is the destination IP address or name of the collector.
+ The udp-port argument is the UDP port number to which NetFlow packets are sent.
You can configure a maximum of five collectors. After a collector is configured, template records are automatically sent to all configured NSEL collectors.
monitor_nsel.html
NEW QUESTION 356
What is a benefit of using Cisco FMC over Cisco ASDM?
- A. Cisco FMC supports pushing configurations to devices while Cisco ASDM does not.
- B. Cisco FMC provides centralized management while Cisco ASDM does not.
- C. Cisco FMC supports all firewall products whereas Cisco ASDM only supports Cisco ASA devices
- D. Cisco FMC uses Java while Cisco ASDM uses HTML5.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/compatibility/firepower-compatibility.html
NEW QUESTION 357
Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the description on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 358
Which suspicious pattern enables the Cisco Tetration platform to learn the normal behavior of users?
- A. user login suspicious behavior
- B. privilege escalation
- C. interesting file access
- D. file access from a different user
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 359
An engineer configures new features within the Cisco Umbrella dashboard and wants to identify and proxy traffic that is categorized as risky domains and may contain safe and malicious content. Which action accomplishes these objectives?
- A. Upload the threat intelligence database to Cisco Umbrella for the most current information on reputations and to have the destination lists block them.
- B. Create a new site within Cisco Umbrella to block requests from those categories so they can be sent to the proxy device.
- C. Configure intelligent proxy within Cisco Umbrella to intercept and proxy the requests for only those categories.
- D. Configure URL filtering within Cisco Umbrella to track the URLs and proxy the requests for those categories and below.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 360
......
Secure Network Visibility, Access, and Enforcement – 15%
- Explaining the capacity, benefits, and components of the security products & solutions, such as Cisco Stealthwatch, Cisco Umbrella Investigate, Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud, Cisco pxGrid, and others.
- Explaining network access with the use of CoA;
- Describing the exfiltration methods, including HTTPS, IRC, DNS tunneling, email, Messenger, and others;
- Configuring and verifying the function of network access device, such as 802.1X, WebAuth, and MAB;
- Explaining identity management & secure network access concepts, such as profiling, posture assessment, guest services, as well as BYOD;
- Describing the network telemetry benefits;
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